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NEW QUESTION: 1
You executed a DROP USER CASCADE on an Oracle 11g release 1 database and immediately realized
that you forgot to copy the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema.
The RECYCLE_BIN enabled before the DROP USER was executed and the OCP user has been granted
the FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege.
What is the quickest way to recover the contents of the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema?
A. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO
EXAM_RESULTS; connected as the OCP user.
B. Recover the table using Automated Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
C. Recover the table using traditional Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
D. Recovery the table using Database Point In Time Recovery.
E. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO
OCP.EXAM_RESULTS; connected as SYSTEM.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RMAN tablespace point-in-time recovery (TSPITR).
Recovery Manager (RMAN) TSPITR enables quick recovery of one or more tablespaces in a database to
an earlier time without affecting the rest of the tablespaces and objects in the database.
Fully Automated (the default)
In this mode, RMAN manages the entire TSPITR process including the auxiliary instance. You specify the
tablespaces of the recovery set, an auxiliary destination, the target time, and you allow RMAN to manage
all other aspects of TSPITR.
The default mode is recommended unless you specifically need more control over the location of recovery
set files after TSPITR, auxiliary set files during TSPITR, channel settings and parameters or some other
aspect of your auxiliary instance.

NEW QUESTION: 2
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2.
On Server1, you create an Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS) instance named Instance1.
You connect to Instance1 by using ADSI Edit.
You run the Create Object wizard and you discover that there is no User object class.
You need to ensure that you can create user objects in Instance1.
What should you do?
A. Install the Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).
B. Modify the schema of Instance1.
C. Run the AD LDS Setup Wizard.
D. Modify the properties of the Instance1 service.
Answer: B

NEW QUESTION: 3
Which of the following concepts is enforced by certifying that email communications have been sent by who the message says it has been sent by?
A. Key escrow
B. Non-repudiation
C. Multifactor authentication
D. Hashing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Regarding digital security, the cryptological meaning and application of non-repudiation shifts to mean:
A service that provides proof of the integrity and origin of data.
An authentication that can be asserted to be genuine with high assurance.
Incorrect Answers:
A. Key escrow addresses the possibility that a third party may need to access keys. Under the conditions of key escrow, the keys needed to encrypt/decrypt data are held in an escrow account (think of the term as it relates to home mortgages) and made available if that third party requests them.
C. A multifactor authentication method uses two or more processes for logon. A twofactor method might use smart cards and biometrics for logon.
D. A hash function is used to map digital data of variable size to digital data of fixed length. A hash function is not used to verify the sender of an e-mail.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp. 133,
255, 262, 414

NEW QUESTION: 4
What Cloud Deployment model consist of a cloud infrastructure provisioned for exclusive use by a single organization comprising multiple consumers (e.g., business units)? Such deployment model may be owned, managed, and operated by the organization, a third party, or some combination of them, and it may exist on or off premises.
A. Public Cloud
B. Private Cloud
C. Hybrid Cloud
D. Community Cloud
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Private cloud. The cloud infrastructure is provisioned for exclusive use by a single
organization comprising multiple consumers (e.g., business units). It may be owned, managed,
and operated by the organization, a third party, or some combination of them, and it may exist on
or off premises.
Other Cloud Deployment Models are:
Community cloud.
The cloud infrastructure is provisioned for exclusive use by a specific community of consumers
from organizations that have shared concerns (e.g., mission, security requirements, policy, and
compliance considerations). It may be owned, managed, and operated by one or more of the
organizations in the community, a third party, or some combination of them, and it may exist on or
off premises.
Public cloud.
The cloud infrastructure is provisioned for open use by the general public. It may be owned,
managed, and operated by a business, academic, or government organization, or some
combination of them. It exists on the premises of the cloud provider.
Hybrid cloud.
The cloud infrastructure is a composition of two or more distinct cloud infrastructures (private,
community, or public) that remain unique entities, but are bound together by standardized or
proprietary technology that enables data and application portability (e.g., cloud bursting for load
balancing between clouds).
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
NIST Special Publication 800-145 The NIST definition of Cloud Computing
and also see
NIST Special Publication 800-146 The Cloud Computing Synopsis and Recommendations