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NEW QUESTION: 1
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of a formalized information classification program?
A. It reduces asset vulnerabilities.
B. It drives audit processes.
C. It minimizes system logging requirements.
D. It supports risk assessment.
Answer: D

NEW QUESTION: 2
What is the correct order of steps in Duo Multifactor Authentication?
A. 1. Request Login 2 Duo MFA
3. Authentication Granted 4 Connect to SAML server
5. Log into Splunk
6. Create User session
B. 1 Request Login
2 Check authentication / group mapping
3 Authentication Granted
4. Duo MFA
5. Create User session
6. Log into Splunk
C. 1 Request Login
2. Connect to SAML server
3 Duo MFA
4 Create User session
5 Authentication Granted 6. Log into Splunk
D. 1 Request Login 2 Duo MFA
3. Check authentication / group mapping
4 Create User session
5. Authentication Granted
6 Log into Splunk
Answer: B

NEW QUESTION: 3
Drag & Drop-Frage
Ziehen Sie die WLAN-Komponenten von links auf die richtigen Beschreibungen rechts.
Auswählen und platzieren:

Answer:
Explanation:

Explanation:
The service port can be used management purposes, primarily for out-of-band management. However, AP management traffic is not possible across the service port. In most cases, the service port is used as a "last resort" means of accessing the controller GUI for management purposes. For example, in the case where the system distribution ports on the controller are down or their communication to the wired network is otherwise degraded.
A dynamic interface with the Dynamic AP Management option enabled is used as the tunnel source for packets from the controller to the access point and as the destination for CAPWAP packets from the access point to the controller.
The virtual interface is used to support mobility management, Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) relay, and embedded Layer 3 security such as guest web authentication. It also maintains the DNS gateway host name used by Layer 3 security and mobility managers to verify the source of certificates when Layer 3 web authorization is enabled.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-5/config-guide/b_cg85/ports_and_interfaces.html

NEW QUESTION: 4
A derivative contract has a negative current replacement value. Which of the following statements is true about its loan equivalent value for credit risk calculations over a 2-year horizon?
A. Since the derivatives contract has a negative current replacement value, exposure will be zero.
B. The notional value of the derivatives contract should be used for loan equivalence calculations.
C. The credit exposure will be a given quintile of the expected distribution of the value of the derivatives contract in the future.
D. The current exposure can be used for loan equivalence calculations as that is an unbiased proxy for the future value.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The current exposure is negative, so there is no immediate credit exposure. However, since the price of the derivative is volatile, we can reasonably expect the value to be greater than zero sometime in the future. This is a stochastic variable which will have a distribution, and not just a unique value, in the future that will represent the credit exposure. Since there is no unique value, a conservative approach is to pick a quintile of the distribution, and use that as the future value of the derivative contract, with the assurance that the probability of the credit exposure exceeding that quintile is known and has been consciously selected. This number can then be converted to a loan equivalent amount for credit risk purposes. Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer. Choice 'a', Choice 'd' and Choice 'c' are incorrect for these reasons.