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NEW QUESTION: 1
This type of control is used to ensure that transactions are properly entered into the system once.
Elements of this type of control may include counting data and time stamping it with the date it was entered or edited?
A. Processing Controls
B. Input/Output Controls
C. Output Controls
D. Input Controls
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Transaction controls are used to provide control over the various stages of a transaction - from initiation, to output, through testing and change control.
Input Controls are a type of transaction control.
Input controls are used to ensure that transactions are properly input into the system only once. Elements of input controls may include counting the data and timestamping it with the date it was entered or edited.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Processing controls are used to guarantee that transactions are valid and accurate and that wrong entries are reprocessed correctly and promptly. This is not what is described in the question.
B: Output controls are used for two things - for protecting the confidentiality of an output, and for verifying the integrity of an output by comparing the input transaction with the output data. Elements of proper output controls would involve ensuring the output reaches the proper users, restricting access to the printed output storage areas, printing heading and trailing banners, requiring signed receipts before releasing sensitive output, and printing "no output" banners when a report is empty. This is not what is described in the question.
D: Input/Output Controls are not a defined control type.
References:
Krutz, Ronald L. and Russell Dean Vines, The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the CISSP and ISSEP Exams, 2nd Edition, Wiley Publishing, Indianapolis, 2004, p. 303

NEW QUESTION: 2
During a server audit, a security administrator does not notice abnormal activity. However, a network security analyst notices connections to unauthorized ports from outside the corporate network. Using specialized tools, the network security analyst also notices hidden processes running. Which of the following has MOST likely been installed on the server?
A. SPIM
B. Backdoor
C. Logic bomb
D. Rootkit
Answer: D
Explanation:
A rootkit is a collection of tools (programs) that enable administrator-level access to a computer or computer network. Typically, a cracker installs a rootkit on a computer after first obtaining user-level access, either by exploiting a known vulnerability or cracking a password. Once the rootkit is installed, it allows the attacker to mask intrusion and gain root or privileged access to the computer and, possibly, other machines on the network. A rootkit may consist of spyware and other programs that: monitor traffic and keystrokes; create a "backdoor" into the system for the hacker's use; alter log files; attack other machines on the network; and alter existing system tools to escape detection. The presence of a rootkit on a network was first documented in the early 1990s. At that time, Sun and Linux operating systems were the primary targets for a hacker looking to install a rootkit. Today, rootkits are available for a number of operating systems, including Windows, and are increasingly difficult to detect on any network.

NEW QUESTION: 3
Which of the following statements are true when considering the Forever Forward Incremental backup method, on a NTFS-based backup repository? (Choose two.)
A. The merge process can cause a heavy I/Q load on the repository
B. Even when retention is breached, only sequential writes to the backup repository are performed
C. In between job run, the storage always contains the number of restore points indicated in the backup job settings
D. The most recent restore point in the backup chain is always a full backup
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/backup/70/bp_vsphere/sizing_repo_fwd_incremental.html